I want to try to think about this logically, using a series of statements and inferences.
- There is reason to suspect that Wikileaks gets the information that they leak from Russian spies and/or sympathizers.
- Let us suppose that this is true. If that is the case,what does the fact that Wikileaks released all this information suggest?
- It would be reasonable to infer that Russian spies/sympathizers now have more access to government documents than they previously did.
- How could that ever happen? What could possibly have changed recently to allow pro- Russian forces greater access to previously-secure areas of the government?
- Absolutely nothing suggests itself.
Sorry. This really went nowhere. I’m at a total dead end.